Force on an iron ball due to a dipole magnet

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around calculating the force experienced by a soft iron ball positioned above a rectangular dipole magnet. The magnetic field strength is given by the formula B = (μ_0 / 4π) * (m / d^3), where m represents the dipole moment. The participant notes that the standard force equation F = qv x B is not applicable since the iron ball is stationary. They suggest that the magnetic field induces a dipole moment in the iron ball, leading to dipole-dipole interactions, and propose a formula for the magnetic force between the dipole magnet and the iron ball. The conversation highlights the complexities of magnetic forces acting on stationary objects in a magnetic field.
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Homework Statement


A soft iron ball is fixed a distance d above the pole of a rectangular dipole magnet which is permanently magnetized. What is the force the iron ball feels due to the magnetic field?

The dimensions of the dipole magnet are a x a x b, where a < b

Homework Equations



B= \frac{μ_0}{4π}\frac{m}{d^3}

Dipole Moment:
m = pl
p = magnetic dipole strength (how is this even calculated?)
l = displacement vector between poles

The Attempt at a Solution



I know the following:

F = qv x B

But I don't think I can use that because there's no velocity as the iron ball is fixed.

The ball has to feel some kind of force, though that formula suggests it isn't possible. It seems to me that if I hung a ball from a string, the tension in the string would increase if a magnet was placed below the iron ball. Is there some concept I'm not understanding, here?
 
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After thinking about it, I think that with the magnetic field from the dipole magnet pulling charge to one spot in the soft iron, that too would act like a dipole so I'd be looking for dipole-dipole forces.

F_{mag}=\frac{-3μ_0m_1m_2}{4πr^4}

Where m1 and m2 are the masses of the soft iron ball and the aforementioned dipole magnet?
 
Kindly see the attached pdf. My attempt to solve it, is in it. I'm wondering if my solution is right. My idea is this: At any point of time, the ball may be assumed to be at an incline which is at an angle of θ(kindly see both the pics in the pdf file). The value of θ will continuously change and so will the value of friction. I'm not able to figure out, why my solution is wrong, if it is wrong .
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