Free Electron passing over Potential Well

AI Thread Summary
To determine the conditions for an electron to pass over a potential well, the relationship between the electron's energy and the potential depth is crucial. When the electron's energy (E) is less than the potential barrier (Ub), it can still tunnel through due to its wave nature. The discussion highlights the importance of the Schrödinger equation in analyzing the wave function of the electron, which is expressed as A exp(ikx). The energy of the electron is clarified to be 8 eV when considering its total energy relative to the well, while the energy remains conserved at 3 eV when discussing its state within the well. Understanding these principles is essential for solving the problem effectively.
jegues
Messages
1,085
Reaction score
3

Homework Statement



See figure attached.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



What condition must be satisfied in order for the electron to pass over the well?

Thanks again!
 

Attachments

  • Q24.jpg
    Q24.jpg
    15.8 KB · Views: 569
Physics news on Phys.org
The solutions of the time dependent Schrödinger equation are waves both in free space and over the potential well. How are the parameters of the wave related to the energy of the electron and the depth of the well?

ehild
 
ehild said:
The solutions of the time dependent Schrödinger equation are waves both in free space and over the potential well. How are the parameters of the wave related to the energy of the electron and the depth of the well?

ehild

When E < Ub, because it is a matter wave, the electron has a finite probability of tunneling through the barrier and materializing on the other side, moving rightward with energy E as though nothing had happened in the region of 0 ≤ x ≤ L.

But I'm still lost on how to solve this one or what equation(s) I should be looking at.

EDIT: \frac{d^{2}\psi}{dx^{2}} + \frac{8\pi^{2}m}{h^{2}}[E-U(x)]\psi = 0

This relates the mechanical energy of the particle to the potential of the well.
 
Giving this another shot.

K = \frac{1}{2}mv^{2}

p = mv

So,

E = \frac{p^{2}}{2m}

but,

p=\frac{h}{\lambda}

So,

E = \frac{h^{2}}{2m \lambda^{2}}

then,

\lambda = \frac{h}{\sqrt{2mE}} = 430pm
 
That is all right, but E in your equation is E-Ub=8 eV really, is not it?

You could have approached the problem also by solving the Schrödinger equation.
The electron is free as it has positive energy. Its wave function is of the form A exp(ikx). Substituting into the Schrödinger equation,

k=sqrt(2m(E-Ub))/(h/(2pi)).

But you know that k=2pi/lambda.

ehild
 
ehild said:
That is all right, but E in your equation is E-Ub=8 eV really, is not it?

You could have approached the problem also by solving the Schrödinger equation.
The electron is free as it has positive energy. Its wave function is of the form A exp(ikx). Substituting into the Schrödinger equation,

k=sqrt(2m(E-Ub))/(h/(2pi)).

But you know that k=2pi/lambda.

ehild

Well it states the electron is passing over the well so it's energy would be (5+3)eV=8eV
 
No, energy is conserved, so it would still be 3 eV. 8 eV is the energy above the bottom of the well, which is the quantity you want in this case.
 
Back
Top