bubblehead
- 6
- 0
I need to show that
u^{+}_{r}(p)u_{s}(p)=\frac{\omega_{p}}{m}\delta_{rs}
where
\omega_{p}=\sqrt{\vec{p}^2+m^{2}}
u_{r}(p)=\frac{\gamma^{\mu}p_{\mu}+m}{\sqrt{2m(m+\omega_{p})}}u_{r}(m{,}\vec{0})[\itex] is the plane-wave spinor for the positive-energy solution of the Dirac equation.<br /> <br /> I think my problem is twofold: I'm not sure I've computed the Hermitian conjugate of the spinor correctly (just the gamma matrix and p have Hermitian conjugates, is that right?) and I'm not sure how/why the normalization term disappears when squared. Either way, I'm not getting the nice simple answer I should!
u^{+}_{r}(p)u_{s}(p)=\frac{\omega_{p}}{m}\delta_{rs}
where
\omega_{p}=\sqrt{\vec{p}^2+m^{2}}
u_{r}(p)=\frac{\gamma^{\mu}p_{\mu}+m}{\sqrt{2m(m+\omega_{p})}}u_{r}(m{,}\vec{0})[\itex] is the plane-wave spinor for the positive-energy solution of the Dirac equation.<br /> <br /> I think my problem is twofold: I'm not sure I've computed the Hermitian conjugate of the spinor correctly (just the gamma matrix and p have Hermitian conjugates, is that right?) and I'm not sure how/why the normalization term disappears when squared. Either way, I'm not getting the nice simple answer I should!