Hermitian conjugate of plane wave spinors for Dirac equation

bubblehead
Messages
6
Reaction score
0
I need to show that

u^{+}_{r}(p)u_{s}(p)=\frac{\omega_{p}}{m}\delta_{rs}

where
\omega_{p}=\sqrt{\vec{p}^2+m^{2}}
u_{r}(p)=\frac{\gamma^{\mu}p_{\mu}+m}{\sqrt{2m(m+\omega_{p})}}u_{r}(m{,}\vec{0})[\itex] is the plane-wave spinor for the positive-energy solution of the Dirac equation.<br /> <br /> I think my problem is twofold: I&#039;m not sure I&#039;ve computed the Hermitian conjugate of the spinor correctly (just the gamma matrix and p have Hermitian conjugates, is that right?) and I&#039;m not sure how/why the normalization term disappears when squared. Either way, I&#039;m not getting the nice simple answer I should!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
So any help would be much appreciated. The Hermitian conjugate of the spinor is given by u^{+}_{r}(p)=\frac{\gamma^{\mu}p_{\mu}+m}{\sqrt{2m(m+\omega_{p})}}u^{+}_{r}(m{,}\vec{0})Using this, we can compute u^{+}_{r}(p)u_{s}(p):u^{+}_{r}(p)u_{s}(p)=\frac{\gamma^{\mu}p_{\mu}+m}{\sqrt{2m(m+\omega_{p})}}u^{+}_{r}(m{,}\vec{0}) \cdot \frac{\gamma^{\nu}p_{\nu}+m}{\sqrt{2m(m+\omega_{p})}}u_{s}(m{,}\vec{0}) =\frac{\gamma^{\mu}p_{\mu}+m}{\sqrt{2m(m+\omega_{p})}} \cdot \frac{\gamma^{\nu}p_{\nu}+m}{\sqrt{2m(m+\omega_{p})}} \cdot u^{+}_{r}(m{,}\vec{0})u_{s}(m{,}\vec{0})=\frac{(\gamma^{\mu}p_{\mu}+m)(\gamma^{\nu}p_{\nu}+m)}{2m(m+\omega_{p})} \cdot u^{+}_{r}(m{,}\vec{0})u_{s}(m{,}\vec{0})Now, note that (\gamma^{\mu}p_{\mu}+m)(\gamma^{\nu}p_{\nu}+m)=(p^2+m^2)+2m\gamma^{\mu}p_{\mu}Substituting this into our expression for u^{+}_{r}(p)u_{s
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...

Similar threads

Back
Top