PhanthomJay said:
You are confusing your 'thetas'. There is one shown in the figure. It apparently is the angle that the contact force F makes with the vertical.
Yes , and that angle is known as "
angle of friction."
Then you say u = tan theta. That theta in u = tan theta has nothing to due with the other angle.
What "other" angle are you mentioning ? Do you mean - "Angle of repose" ?
u is a property of the materials, independent of anything else. For some slick race car tires on dry pavement, u can have a value of well over 1.
Ok , but how can any object have μ>1 ?
When you place an object on an incline plane and slowly increase the angle of the incline, then the object will slip at the angle where u = tan theta. That's a whole different theta. Nothing at all to do with the contact force and it's angle with the vertical.
Yes , I know. I am anyways not talking about angle of repose which is a topic of friction on an inclined plane. Here I am talking about angle of friction - angle made by contact force with the vertical.
Also, the figure is messed. F should be pointing down and to the right, which is another different issue. Bottom line is that u can be greater than 1 for some materials.
I cannot fathom. Anyways , here is what my textbook says about friction :
Suppose a block is kept on ground. In this case , taking block as a system , there are two forces acting on it , force of gravity and normal reaction. If we apply force on block , and suppose it does not move , then the contact force applied by ground on block to oppose relative motion of block w.r.t ground will have two components , as shown in my figure in post #1 , one will be vertical component which will balance the force due gravity (which will always remain same) and other will be horizontal component which will provide friction force which equal applied force. Now as we apply more force - 5,6,7,8N,etc... block still does not move. Such type of friction is called static friction. This must mean that frictional force , f
s = μN is also increasing. Now here is what I 'm adding - since N or normal reaction remains same , f
s is increasing because μ is increasing. μ = f/N , but tanθ = f/N so μ=tanθ. This means that angle of friction θ , is also increasing which tilts the vector of contact force further and also increases length of contact force vector. Now at some value of f
s , the block is just to move. We call that friction , limiting friction and μ
s as coefficient of limiting friction. Limiting friction is equal to minimum applied force to move that object. In this case tanθ
s = μ
s , where θ
s is known as critical angle of friction. In general f
s≤μ
sN.
Now as block begins to move , the static friction is replaced by kinetic friction. Since f
k<f
s , so μ
k<μ
s , this must mean that angle of friction during kinetic friction must be reduced and the tilting of contact force vector will also reduce. But after this f
k will always remain same and so does μ
k except for body moving with high relative velocities.
Also , in case of static friction , if μ→∞ , θ (or angle of friction ) → 90
o , does it not imply that N or normal reaction =0 ?
This is my concept regarding kinetic and static friction. Assume that object is moving on horizontal surface and not inclined plane. Tell me where is it jumbled up ?
And in my textbook , this figure (in post 1) was only drawn to show contact force applied by ground on block.
NoPoke said:
Mathematicians can do physics too so it is not a great idea to dismiss the answer given because a maths site doesn't help you much in general. It only has to help you in this particular instance to be of value.
The question on that maths site was "My college physics professor stated that the coefficient of friction can be greater than one..." So it isn't just the mathematicians saying u can be >1.
The answer given on the maths site for can u>1 shows two things
1) The mathematical model is fine with u>1 ["Friction" is a macro-model of nature only!]
2) That if there is even a single example where u>1 then the theory that u is always <1 is false. [basic scientific method]
FWIW I used to think that u<1 was a rule too : but it was my mistake to extrapolate from never seeing a counter example to the non-existance of counter examples.
Ah ! Thanks. I went through that site , and it only made me believe that coefficients of friction can be greater than 1.