Solid state - Energy of electron in Brillouin zone

Confundo
Messages
36
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Using geometrical arguments or otherwise, derive how the energy of an electron in the second Brillouin zone may be less than the energy of an electron in the first zone. [3]

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I'm thinking this has something to do with overlapping bands, I think divalent metals show these characteristics. I'm not really sure where to start off from with a derivation though.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Suppose we have a simple cubic lattice, whose 1st Brillouin zone (1BZ) is a cube. Let's consider a vertex and the center of a face on this cube.

We know the the distance of the vertex from the origin is sqrt(3) times that of the center of the face. Therefore, in the (nearly) free electron model, the energy at the vertex is bigger.

Now consider a point near the vertex but still inside 1BZ and a point near the center of a face but a little bit outside 1BZ. Which one has the bigger energy?

This kind of thing happens in any shape other than sphere, which is impossible to be the shape of the Brillouin zone.
 
Last edited:
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top