I've been reading a book on economics and they defined a homogeneous function as: ƒ(x1,x2,…,xn) such that
ƒ(tx1,tx2,…,txn)=tkƒ(x1,x2,…,xn) ..totally understandable.. they further explained that a direct result from this is that the partial derivative of such a function will be homogeneous to the...