I found this proof on a website for the derivative of ln x:
y = ln x.
e^y = x,
dy/dx * e^y = 1,
dy/dx * x = 1,
dy/dx = 1/x.
My question is, why can't we use a similar method to prove the derivative of log(b)x = 1/x, like this:
y = log(b) x.
b^y = x,
dy/dx * b^y = 1,
dy/dx * x =...