A conducting shell kept in a uniform electric field

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on calculating the force that attempts to separate a conducting shell into two halves when placed in a uniform electric field, denoted as E. Participants reference Gauss's Law and the Laplace equation to analyze the induced polarization on the shell. It is established that the electric field induces charges on the shell, resulting in a dipole effect that leads to a net force acting to separate the hemispheres. The consensus is that the external electric field interacts with the induced charges, creating a force that effectively pulls the two halves apart.

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  • Understanding of Gauss's Law and its application in electrostatics.
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  • #31
rude man said:
Right.
I meant to say that the effect is for the two halves to want to move apart from each other, but they are not the agents trying to do so.

The answer is that the E field acts on the induced charges so as to try to pull the two halves apart from each other.
Ok, but calling that repulsion is confusing.
 
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  • #32
haruspex said:
Ok, but calling that repulsion is confusing.
I agree, interpreting that the two repel each other is not a correct view.
Titan97 said:
Once I know the charge on the shell, then I will find force using $$F=\int Edq$$ I will post my attempt soon. Even if method of images is easier, I want to solve this problem in more than one way.
OK, if & when you have a numerical answer I am willing to compare results ...
 
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  • #33
Solution to lapalace equation in spherical coordinates:

$$\Phi=\sum_{i=0}^{\infty}A_ir^i+B_ir^{-i-1}P_i(\cos\theta)$$

I have no idea what that means. But using the boundary conditions, I evaluated the constants. (I did not understand the derivation. It's beyond my high school syllabus).

  • At ##r=a##, $$A_ia^i=-B_ia^{-i-1}$$ $$B_I=A_ia^{2i+1}$$
  • At ##r\to\infty## $$-E_0r\cos\theta=\sum_{i=0}^{\infty}A_ir^iP_i(\cos\theta)$$ Now, by equating the coefficients, $$A_1=-E_0$$ since ##P_1(\cos\theta)=\cos\theta##
I am not sure if I can equate the coefficients like in point two. ##x=x^2+2x+3## does not mean that ##1=2##.
Also, at point one, I assumed that ##P_i\cos\theta\neq0##.


How should I proceed?
 
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  • #34
haruspex said:
Ok, but calling that repulsion is confusing.
So stipulated!
 
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  • #35
Titan97 said:
Solution to lapalace equation in spherical coordinates:
$$\Phi=\sum_{i=0}^{\infty}A_ir^i+B_ir^{-i-1}P_i(\cos\theta)$$
This is the solution for the axisymmetric case where the potential Φ is not a function of the azimuth angle φ. But here you can't ignore φ; Φ is a function of r, θ and φ. (It can for example easily be shown by symmetry argument that the potential is zero everywhere along a line extending from infinity to the center of the shell with the line being perpendicular to the E field).

The non-axisymmetric case is justifiably referred to as "non-examinable" !
 
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  • #36
rude man said:
This is the solution for the axisymmetric case where the potential Φ is not a function of the azimuth angle φ. But here you can't ignore φ; Φ is a function of r, θ and φ.
If the direction θ = 0 is chosen parallel to the applied external field, then Φ will be independent of φ.

(It can for example easily be shown by symmetry argument that the potential is zero everywhere along a line extending from infinity to the center of the shell with the line being perpendicular to the E field).

Yes. The plane θ = ##\pi##/2 is an equipotential surface where Φ = 0.
 
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  • #37
Titan97 said:
Solution to lapalace equation in spherical coordinates:

$$\Phi=\sum_{i=0}^{\infty}A_ir^i+B_ir^{-i-1}P_i(\cos\theta)$$
The ##P_i(\cos\theta)## factor should also multiply the ##A_i## term.

Your analysis is good. If ##A_1## is the only nonzero ##A_i## term, what is the only nonzero ##B_i## term?
 
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  • #38
@TSny, $$A_1=-E_0r$$
$$B_1=-E_0a^3$$
For all ##r##,
$$\Phi=-E_0\left(r-\frac{a^3}{r^2}\right)$$
This is the potential due to the applied electric field and that due to the induced charge on the shell.

Am I correct If I say that ##-E_0r## is due to applied electric field and ##E_0\frac{r^3}{a^2}## is due to the induced charge?

To get ##\sigma##, should I consider the potential due to induced charge only or the net potential ##\Phi##?
 
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  • #39
TSny said:
If the direction θ = 0 is chosen parallel to the applied external field, then Φ will be independent of φ.
Yes. The plane θ = ##\pi##/2 is an equipotential surface where Φ = 0.
Yes, I failed to see that. Thanks for joining in!
 
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  • #40
@rude man will I get to learn legendre polynomial in engineering? Or is it a part of mathematics? I just learned vector calculus because of interest and to solve this problem :smile:(I read Purcell and Morin's book).
 
  • #41
Titan97 said:
I did not understand the derivation. It's beyond my high school syllabus).
You can arrive at this distribution by a thought experiment. Since the induced charges must neutralise the external field within the sphere, the field they generate must be uniform within the sphere. So if we project the charges onto the plane disc boundary between them it would produce a uniform charge on the each side of the disc. Projecting that back, we find the distributions follow a cosine law.
 
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  • #42
Titan97 said:
@TSny, $$A_1=-E_0r$$
$$B_1=-E_0a^3$$
For all ##r##,
$$\Phi=-E_0\left(r-\frac{a^3}{r^2}\right)$$
Good, but don't forget the contribution from ##P_1(\cos \theta)##.
Am I correct If I say that ##-E_0r## is due to applied electric field and ##E_0\frac{r^3}{a^2}## is due to the induced charge?
Ye
s, once you fix it.

To get ##\sigma##, should I consider the potential due to induced charge only or the net potential ##\Phi##?
The net potential is what matters. How do you plan to get ##\sigma## from ##\Phi##?
 
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  • #43
Titan97 said:
@rude man will I get to learn legendre polynomial in engineering? Or is it a part of mathematics? I just learned vector calculus because of interest and to solve this problem :smile:(I read Purcell and Morin's book).
Legendre polynomials is something you are likely to encounter in an advanced undergraduate physics (electricity & magnetism) or math course. You will most probably not see it in an introductory, engineering-level physics course; and I would say in math not before a 5th semester course. Of course, math courses vary widely in material covered, depending on the school and on prior (high school) exposure.

As TSny pointed out, the potential expression is a function of r and θ only, and in fact I find that (based on the image dipole method) it's a pretty simple expression. And the surface charge density is a function of θ only, if that will help you to your answer.
 
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  • #44
@TSny $$E=\frac{\partial\Phi}{\partial r}\hat{r}+\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial\Phi}{\partial\theta}\hat{\theta}$$
$$E=-E_0\left(1+\frac{2a^3}{r^3}\right)\cos\theta\hat{r}+E_0\left(r-\frac{a^3}{r^2}\right)\sin\theta\hat{\theta}$$
$$\sigma=\epsilon_0E_{r=a}=-3\epsilon_0E_0\cos\theta$$
As @rude man pointed out, charge density depends only on ##\theta##.
Untitled.png


Should I now integrate ##EdA\sigma##?
 
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  • #45
Titan97 said:
@TSny $$E=\frac{\partial\Phi}{\partial r}\hat{r}+\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial\Phi}{\partial\theta}\hat{\theta}$$
$$E=-E_0\left(1+\frac{2a^3}{r^3}\right)\cos\theta\hat{r}+E_0\left(r-\frac{a^3}{r^2}\right)\sin\theta\hat{\theta}$$
$$\sigma=\epsilon_0E_{r=a}=-3\epsilon_0E_0\cos\theta$$
OK, but don't forget the negative sign in the basic equation ##\vec{E} = -\nabla V##.

Should I now integrate ##EdA\sigma##?
There's a factor of 1/2 that's easy to overlook here. For example, see this video. Be sure you're awake at around time 7:45 in the video.:bugeye:
 
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  • #46
Titan97 said:
(I read Purcell and Morin's book).
The 1/2 factor mentioned in my previous post is derived in section 1.14 of Purcell and Morin. See equation 1.50.
 
  • #47
@TSny should I add the force due to external electric field and the force due to the shell on itself?
 
  • #48
Titan97 said:
@TSny should I add the force due to external electric field and the force due to the shell on itself?
No, the formula at 7:45 in the video (or equations 1.44 and 1.50 in Purcell) gives you the total force per unit area: $$\frac{dF}{dA} = \frac{\sigma ^2}{2 \varepsilon_0}$$.
 
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  • #49
At the surface, ##E=3E_0\cos\theta##. This electric field is due to both the applied electric field and due to the induced charge.

Untitled.png


Near a conducting surface (that is, at A) , the electric field due to the conductor is ##\frac{\sigma}{\epsilon_0}##

Let E1 be field due to the charge inside the pillbox and E2 be other electric field.

Total electric field at A is $$\frac{\sigma}{\epsilon_0}=E_1+E_2$$
Inside the conductor, at surface B, ##E_1=E_2##
$$E_2=\frac{\sigma}{2\epsilon_0}$$

Force is ##\frac{\sigma}{2\epsilon_0}dq##
 
  • #50
Titan97 said:
At the surface, ##E=3E_0\cos\theta##. This electric field is due to both the applied electric field and due to the induced charge.
Yes.

Near a conducting surface (that is, at A) , the electric field due to the conductor is ##\frac{\sigma}{\epsilon_0}##
##\sigma / \varepsilon_0## equals the net electric field just outside the surface of the conductor. This net electric field includes the field of all charges on the conductor as well as any other charges not on the conductor and any applied external field.
 
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  • #51
You've done extremely well! Especially for a high school student!
The notion of electrostatic pressure due to surface charge density is perhaps a bit mysterious. Here is a link giving a good derivation of the pressure formula at a conductor of p = σ2/2ε0

http://www.physicspages.com/2011/10/31/electrostatic-pressure/
 
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  • #52
$$dF=\frac{\sigma}{2\epsilon_0}\sigma dA=\frac{9}{2}\epsilon_0E_0^2\cos^2\theta\hat{r}$$
$$dA=2\pi a^2\cos\theta\sin\theta d\theta$$
Only force along $z$ remains (that is, along rcosθ). The other components cancels out.
$$dF=9\epsilon_0E_0^2\pi a^2\cos^3\theta\sin\theta d\theta$$
$$F=\frac{9}{4}\epsilon_0E_0^2\pi a^2$$
 
  • #53
Titan97 said:
$$F=\frac{9}{4}\epsilon_0E_0^2\pi a^2$$
I think that's correct. Great work!
 
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  • #54
Titan97 said:
$$dF=\frac{\sigma}{2\epsilon_0}\sigma dA=\frac{9}{2}\epsilon_0E_0^2\cos^2\theta\hat{r}$$
$$dA=2\pi a^2\cos\theta\sin\theta d\theta$$
I have dA = a2 sinθ dθ dφ = 2πa2sinθ dθ.
 
  • #55
The radius of the ring is ##a\sin\theta##. Its width is ##ad\theta##. Yes. The area is ##2\pi a^2\sin\theta d\theta##.

Then $$dF=\frac{\sigma}{2\epsilon_0}\sigma dA\cos\theta$$
since other component cancels out.

The final answer is same. I think I made some typing error. (I also missed 'dA' in the first line).
 
  • #56
Titan97 said:
The radius of the ring is ##a\sin\theta##. Its width is ##ad\theta##. Yes. The area is ##2\pi a^2\sin\theta d\theta##.

Then $$dF=\frac{\sigma}{2\epsilon_0}\sigma dA\cos\theta$$
.
Why the cos θ term? Looks to me like it should be sin θ, not cos θ, since the "pull" is maximum at the equator where θ = π/2, and zero at the poles where θ = 0 and π.

So that would make $$dF=\frac{\sigma}{2\epsilon_0}\sigma dA\sin\theta$$, with
dA = 2πa2sin θ dθ.
 
  • #57
@rude man
Untitled.png

I need to take the cosine component.
 

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