EM Lagrangian: Question on $(\partial_\mu A^\mu)^2$ Term

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    Em Field Lagrangian
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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the electromagnetic (EM) Lagrangian, specifically the term $(\partial_\mu A^\mu)^2$. The EM Lagrangian is defined as $$\mathcal{L} = -\frac{1}{2}[(\partial_\mu A_\nu)(\partial^\mu A^\nu) - (\partial_\mu A^\mu)^2]$$ as presented in the QFT notes by Tong. The term $(\partial_\mu A^\mu)^2$ arises through integration by parts, emphasizing that the action, rather than the Lagrangian density, is the focal point of the analysis. The clarification provided resolves the initial confusion regarding the derivation of this term.

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The EM Lagrangian is
$$\mathcal{L} = -\frac{1}{2}[(\partial_\mu A_\nu)(\partial^\mu A^\nu) - (\partial_\mu A_\nu)(\partial^\nu A^\mu)]$$

In the QFT notes from Tong the EM Lagrangian is written in the form
$$\mathcal{L} = -\frac{1}{2}[(\partial_\mu A_\nu)(\partial^\mu A^\nu) - (\partial_\mu A^\mu)^2]$$

I don't see how did he get ##(\partial_\mu A^\mu)^2## term? Thanks :)
 
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Integration by parts. What is relevant is not the Lagrangian density, but the action.
 
Orodruin said:
Integration by parts. What is relevant is not the Lagrangian density, but the action.
Many thanks, it's clear now.
 

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