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Let [itex]E_1, E_2, \ldots, E_n[/itex] be [itex]n[/itex] allowed energy levels for a system of electrons. This system can be described by the Fermi-Dirac distribution [itex]f(E)[/itex].

Each of those levels can be occupied by two electrons if they have opposite spins.

Suppose that [itex]E_1, E_2, \ldots, E_n[/itex] are such that

[itex]\displaystyle 2 \sum_{k = 1}^n f(E_k) = 1[/itex]

where the [itex]2[/itex] is due to the degeneracy of states (two electrons allowed for each state). So, can it be stated that in such a system isactuallypresent one electron, that is the result of the sum?

If someone could even explain why, it would be very appreciated.

In any case, thank you for having read.

Emily

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# I Fermi distribution interpretation

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