Velocity of two identical masses over a frictionless pulley

In summary: So let's assume NTW's interpretation of givens: m1 = 15, m2 = 15, u1 = 1, u2 = 1, and coeff of friction = 0.73. Also, let's assume we're dealing with m1 moving down, and m2 moving to the right (it's not very clear in the problem. These assumptions are arbitrary, but you should still be able to solve it if you have the right understanding of Newton's laws and energy equations. If we just focus on the downward force on m1, we can see that the force of gravity pulling m1 down, which is balanced by the normal force, minus the force of friction, is equal to m1
  • #1
Nicki
7
0

Homework Statement


"Consider the following arrangement of masses. Mass 1 is connected to mass 2 by a very light string and moves over a frictionless pulley so that both masses move with the same speed and move the same distances (m2 to the right and m1 down).
Assume m1 = 15 kg, m2 = 15 kg and the coef. of kinetic friction is 0.73. The masses start with an initial velocity of 1.00 m/s. What is their speed after moving 0.0100 m?"

Homework Equations


dE = E1 + E2 = dU1 + dK1 + dU2 + dK2

E1 = dU1 + dK1 (0) = m*g*dH

E2 = dU2 (0) + dK2 = m/2 * (vxf^2 - vxi^2) - friction?

Friction = - 0.73 * mg * d

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
This is where I'm getting stuck.
So do I set

m*g*dH = m/2 * (vxf^2 - vxi^2) - friction

and solve for vf through this equation?

or do I use m/2 * (vxf^2 - vxi^2) - m*g*dH = - friction?

I'm just not sure how to set up the final equation in order to solve for velocity.
 
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  • #2
In my humble opinion, the best way of solving this (and many similar) problems is not to throw a number of equations on the table and then trying to make sense with them...

I suggest, first of all, to make a clear sketch, with the masses and forces. Then, and in the case of this problem, you should calculate the acceleration by using f = m * a, plugging in the equation the total mass and the net force. And then you can easily find the solution with one of the equations of uniformly accelerated motion...
 
  • #3
Unfortunately this is how we're expected to solve these for the time being

I also realized I was missing KE for one of the masses,so now...

I believe that dE = dE1 + dE2

and E1 = dU = mgHf - mGHi and dK = m/2 (vf^2 - vi^2)

and E2 = dU = 0 and that dK = m/2 (vf^2 - vfi^2)

also friction = -(coef friction)*mgd
 
  • #4
Here's my honest opinion:
I honestly can't make sense of your equations. It looks like you're trying to use energy's, which you should be able to do, but I don't know what your equations mean. What is E1? What is E2? what is dE? is dE differential energy, whereas E1 and E2 are total energy? If so, how do you get dE = E1 + E2?
I'm assuming mghf is final GPE and mghi is initial GPE, which works, but there's a significant lack of organization IMHO.
Also, forces definitely work in this situation as well, as NTW said.
 
  • #5


I would approach this problem by first setting up the equations for conservation of energy and solving for the final velocity. The equation for conservation of energy in this case would be:

Ei = Ef
Where Ei is the initial energy and Ef is the final energy.

The initial energy (Ei) would consist of the potential energy of mass 1 (m1), which is m1gh, and the initial kinetic energy of mass 2 (m2), which is 1/2*m2*v^2.

The final energy (Ef) would consist of the final potential energy of mass 1, which is m1gh, and the final kinetic energy of mass 2, which is 1/2*m2*v^2. However, since the masses are connected and move together, their final velocity would be the same and can be represented as v.

Therefore, the equation for conservation of energy becomes:

m1gh + 1/2*m2*v^2 = m1gh + 1/2*m2*v^2

Simplifying this equation, we get:

1/2*m2*v^2 = 0

Solving for v, we get:

v = 0 m/s

This means that after moving 0.0100 m, the masses will come to a stop and their final velocity will be 0 m/s.

It is important to note that in this problem, we are assuming that there is no external force acting on the masses, and the only force that is considered is the frictional force. If we take into account the frictional force, the final velocity would be slightly less than 0 m/s. However, since the masses are moving over a frictionless pulley, we can assume that the frictional force is negligible and can be ignored in this problem.
 

Related to Velocity of two identical masses over a frictionless pulley

1. What is the formula for calculating the velocity of two identical masses over a frictionless pulley?

The formula for calculating the velocity of two identical masses over a frictionless pulley is V = 2a/M, where V is the velocity, a is the acceleration, and M is the mass of the objects.

2. How does the velocity change if the mass of the objects is doubled?

If the mass of the objects is doubled, the velocity will decrease by half. This is because according to the formula, velocity is inversely proportional to the mass.

3. Is the velocity affected by the angle of the pulley?

No, as long as the pulley is frictionless, the angle of the pulley does not affect the velocity of the objects.

4. Can the velocity of the objects ever be greater than the acceleration?

No, the velocity of the objects can never be greater than the acceleration. In fact, the velocity will always be equal to the acceleration in this scenario.

5. What is the significance of using identical masses in this experiment?

Using identical masses ensures that there is an equal distribution of weight on both sides of the pulley, allowing for a more accurate calculation of the velocity.

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