Hi, I have attached the question to this post. I understand on the process on getting to the answer in that you use $$\arrowvert 2, 2\rangle=\arrowvert 1,1\rangle \otimes \arrowvert 1,1\rangle$$ and apply the isospin-lowering operator to obtain $$\arrowvert 2,1 \rangle$$. Then I understand you...