Exist some conection between: $$\int_{0}^{+\infty} f(t) \exp(-st)dt\;\;(1)$$ $$\int_{-\infty}^{0} f(t) \exp(-st)dt\;\;(2)$$ ?
The results, the transformations, are very similar, with some little difference in the signal. So, known the transformation (1), is possible to find the (2)?