Hi can anyone tell me why in the fermionic number operator case:
<0|N/V|0>= \sum_{\pm r}\int d^3 k a^{\dagger}(t,r)a(t,r)
because if:
N=a^{\dagger}(t,k)a(t,k) then after Fourier decomposition surely one gets:
\int d^3 r d^3 r \frac{1}{(2Pi)^{3}} a^{\dagger}(t,r)a(t,rk)
and when...